A 24-year-old at 30 weeks with contractions and 2 cm dilation is prescribed the tocolytic indomethacin. What is the primary reason for administering this medication?

To reduce maternal hypertension associated with preeclampsia

To induce stronger uterine contractions for cervical ripening

To directly stimulate fetal surfactant production

To delay preterm labor and allow time for antenatal corticosteroids to enhance fetal lung maturity